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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

09.06.2025 15:49

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

What would Spanish sound like if only latin and Greek words were used, like some romance analogy to anglish?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Do you think Japan will have same-sex marriage by 2030?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.